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Exam Code: HP0-M47
Exam Name: HP (HP Functional Testing 11.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is configured with the Action Call Properties dialog box?
A. object repositories
B. test flow settings
C. test run properties
D. local data sheet iterations
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have developed a functional test in HP QuickTest Professional and want to take advantage of
version control in HP Application Lifecycle Management. Which menu option should you use to put your
test in HP Application Lifecycle Management?
A. Save As
B. Create Version
C. Check-in
D. Save Test with Resources
Answer: A

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NO.3 HP QuickTest Professional 11 enables you record steps from which browser?
A. Chrome
B. Safari
C. Netscape
D. Firefox
Answer: D

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NO.4 An HP QuickTest Professional instructor needs to take a sample test that was built in HP Application
Lifecycle Management to an off-site training facility. What is the simplest way to convert that test into a
portable format?
A. Use the Export to Portable feature to export the test with its object repository into XML format.
B. Use the Save Test with Resources feature for main test and do the same for the test that contains the
called reusable actions.
C. Use the Save Test with Resources feature.
D. Use the Export to Zip feature.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What happens when you import data using the DataTable.ImportSheet function?
A. Data is overwritten when column headers in Excel and the data table match.
B. Sheet1 in the Excel file is always imported.
C. Data will be appended to the data table.
D. A new column is added to the data table when column headers in Excel and the data table match.
Answer: A

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NO.6 In HP QuickTest Professional, what does the Managing Versions feature enable you to do.?
A. compare different test results
B. check out only the latest version of an asset
C. compare only the latest two versions of an asset
D. check in only the latest version of an asset
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the Data Table in a custom checkpoint?
A. to store output values and formulas
B. to compare headers
C. to access global values
D. to store input objects
Answer: A

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NO.8 When inserting a call to a reusable action, which two ways can the tester handle the data resources in
that action? (Select two.)
A. Have the new action refer to a read-only copy of the data in the original action.
B. Have the action get an empty set of data resources.
C. Delete the data.
D. Store an editable copy of the data in the new action.
E. Have the new action refer with write permissions to the copy of the data in the original action.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which Web testing capabilities have been added in HP QuickTest Professional 11? (Select three.)
A. Firefox Document Object Model access
B. Internet Explorer Developer Toolbar support
C. Event Identifiers that enable identification based on events associated to a Web object
D. Javascript code capability that enables Javascript code to be embedded in all loaded browser pages
E. Property Identifiers that enable identification based on properties associated to a Web object
F. Vbscript code capability that enables Vbscript code to run in specific browser pages
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 What is created when you select Edit > Action > Split Action?
A. an independent action
B. a new shared object repository
C. an action fork
D. a new test
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP3-045
Exam Name: HP (HP LaserJet 2400/p3005 series)
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Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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D. printing through a network connection
Answer: D

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NO.2 The Real-Time Clock date and time can be set through _______. Select two.
A. the Service ID
B. the control panel
C. a PJL command
D. a time server on the network
Answer: B,D

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D. very heavy media (heavier than 28 lb. bond /105 g/m2) and very lightmedia (lighter than 16 lb. bond /
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Exam Code: HP3-X08
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Elite Desktop Products)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 20 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which manageability software ships pre-installed on the HP Compaq 8000 Elite Desktop PC Series.?
A. DTMF DASH 1.1
B. HP Software Agent
C. Intel Core 2 Processor with vPro Technology
D. Verdiem Surveyor Client Agent
Answer: C

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NO.2 The HP Compaq dc7900 Business Desktops feature Intel Active Management Technology (AMT) 5.0,
which offers several new features and management options. Which features are new with AMT 5.0?
(Select three.)
A. hardware-based agent presence checking
B. out-of-band system access
C. Management Component Transport Protocol (MCTP) support
D. remote alerts
E. proactive alerting
F. remote scheduled maintenance
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z21
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Networking)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 46 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is an advantage of installing Converged Network Adaptor (CNA) NICs on virtualized servers.?
A. One CNA NIC typically costs less than one traditional Ethernet NIC but provides adequate
performance for servers that have been optimized with virtualization.
B. CNA NICs enable servers to act as Fiber Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) gateways between SAN and
LAN switches.
C. CNA NICs provide the high-speed connection required for servers to receive Fiber Channel over
Ethernet (FCoE) traffic.
D. Unlike traditional Ethernet NICs, CNA NICs support IPv6, a necessary protocol for data centers of the
future.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which features are necessary in the enterprise aggregation layer? (Select three.)
A. It must support high-speed traffic delivery.
B. It must be highly available.
C. It must be flexible.
D. It must take a primary role in controlling user access to the network.
E. It must take a primary role in controlling access to network resources.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 What are two features that routing switches operating in a campus core must support in order to handle
the vast amounts of data, voice, and video traffic in the contemporary enterprise LAN? (Select two.)
A. They must support hierarchical QoS technologies and virtual routing and forwarding (VRF) protocols.
B. They must support non-blocking forwarding for large amounts of switched and routed traffic.
C. They must scale with ease.
D. They must take a primary role in controlling security threats, in particular threats on virtualized servers
that might never cross the wire.
E. They must take a primary role in determining endpoint compliance with company policies.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 As a data center becomes virtualized and begins to implement cloud computing, how does the traffic
flow typically change?
A. Both north-south (client-server) and east-west (server-to-server) traffic often increase.
B. The speed and reliability of storage traffic transmission increases.
C. The traffic flow shifts from primarily server-to-server to primarily server-to-client.
D. Traffic decreases as more data is processed locally on users' workstations.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which is an effect of virtualization on the data center networking infrastructure?
A. Virtualized servers use less RAM.
B. Virtualized servers use less processing power.
C. Virtualized servers require more bandwidth.
D. Because services and applications running on the virtualized server can interfere with each other, they
must be closely monitored.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-D13
Exam Name: HP (Technical Introduction to the HP Enterprise Portfolio,Rev. 11.41 )
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Total Q&A: 144 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A customer is leasing shared network services in a private cloud to meet business goals. What
potential problem could this customer face?
A. insufficient management tools
B. internal-external service integration
C. cost of hardware investment
D. vendor lock-in
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is fault tolerance?
A. the ability to prevent hardware and software failures
B. the ability to provide "five nines" availability
C. the ability to detect the failure of a primary system and failover to a redundant system
D. the ability to recover quickly from system problems
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which type of HP partition provides complete hardware and software isolation?
A. hard partitions (nPars) with multiple nodes
B. virtual partitions (vPars)
C. hard partitions (nPars) within a single node
D. resource partitions
Answer: A

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NO.4 When do enterprise-level companies often choose server consolidation?
A. when they have a low ratio of administrators to servers
B. when they are running more than three operating systems
C. when reducing costs, because it is more economical for capacity planning than buying new servers
D. when they want to better manage the server inventory list
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is a common characteristic of an enterprise environment that needs improved backup and restore
efficiency?
A. slow system performance during backups
B. slowly growing volumes of data
C. a SCSI attached storage architecture
D. 2TB to 5TB of storage per server
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which edition of Windows Server provides clustering and hot-add processor capabilities to improve
server uptime?
A. Windows HPC Server 2008 R2
B. Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard
C. Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise
D. Windows Small Business Server 2011 Essentials
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the current HP recommendation for power, to handle data center cooling requirements?
A. two single-phase circuits per rack
B. three three-phase circuits per rack
C. one three-phase circuit per rack
D. one single-phase circuit per rack
Answer: A

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NO.8 How do Integrity Virtual Machines (VMs) differ from vPars?
A. vPars employ the Platform Manager, which Is responsible for maintaining all resource queues,
schedules, and allocations
B. VMs use dedicated resources that are exclusively under the control of one kernel
C. vPars are best for fine-grained, virtualized soft partitioning with shared resources.
D. VMs share resources among kernels known as "guests"
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are dividing a group of physical servers into multiple isolated virtual environments in order to
reduce the impact of application upgrades in the environment. How should you configure the servers to
simplify management?
A. as reusable pools of resources
B. as clustered server nodes
C. as a host/guest configuration, with each guest running on a virtual imitation of the hardware layer
D. as multiple virtual servers running multiple operating systems
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer purchases a single TiCAP license with two processor cores activated, how long will they
both stay active?
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 45 days
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is one example of how a Converged Infrastructure addresses an increasingly complex
environment?
A. A low-latency, high-bandwidth interconnect allows each application workload to be distributed and
shared across all system resources in a massively parallel manner
B. SAN and networking signals can be carried across common electrical pathways, resulting in fewer
physical switches to move the signals to their destinations
C. Customers want to move from "one-of-everything" to "one open common IT infrastructure that does
everything."
D. In a standard configuration for cables at the enclosure level. 16 1U rack servers, which would ordinarily
require 80 cables, might require as few as six cables.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which drive technology is commonly used to store structured data?
A. SAS
B. PATA
C. SATA
D. IDE
Answer: A

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NO.13 The HP enterprise server strategy is based on industry-standard processors. Which additional design
element does this strategy use to add value.?
A. in-box upgrades
B. manageability
C. active archiving
D. fault tolerance
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which advantages does HP CloudSystem Matrix otter in the area of infrastructure convergence?
(Select two.)
A. Clustering
B. Comprehensive domain management
C. disaster recovery
D. Central Management Server fault tolerance
E. Common power and cooling
Answer: B,E

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NO.15 Which statement is true about HP-UX Workload Manager (WLM) and HP Global Workload Manager
(gWLM)?
A. HP gWLM is designed for customers with remote nodes in a Continental Cluster. WLM is designed for
new installations where automatic system discovery is required
B. HP gWLM provides decentralized management of virtualization functions across multiple servers,
WLM provides centralized management of virtualization functions across individual servers
C. HP gWLM is the version of WLM sold both to international customers and to U.S. customers with
branch offices abroad.
D. HP gWLM supports larger solutions running multiple operating systems. WLM supports smaller
solutions running a single type of operating system.
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is the HP Integrated Archive Platform?
A. an intelligent workflow and business process management solution
B. a policy-based data management system that facilitates backups on high numbers of servers
C. a solution for collecting, storing, managing, and searching unstructured data
D. an integrated solution that enables data analysis and optimization
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which feature is specific to HP ProLiant high-end servers?
A. eight sockets
B. hot-swappable drives
C. iLO 3
D. Xeon processors
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are acting as a consultant to an enterprise customer. With which corporate representative should
you discuss IT/business alignment goals?
A. procurement manager
B. board chairman
C. chief operations officer
D. chief executive officer
Answer: C

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NO.19 A customer uses a traditional rack-and-stack strategy In Its data center, which results in wasted time
and space. How does CloudSystem Matrix provide an ideal solution for this customer?
A. by implementing multiple single-purpose servers in one chassis
B. by speeding the provisioning of infrastructure and applications
C. by eliminating the possibility of oversubscribed traffic
D. by allowing for a custom cable configuration
Answer: B

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NO.20 What does FlexFabric deliver as a benefit to customers?
A. networking as a service
B. software as a service
C. platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-K27
Exam Name: HP (Supporting and Servicing HP P6000 EVA Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 In an EVA, what is purpose of virtual disk leveling.?
A. Dynamically distribute data blocks over many physical spindles to eliminate performance bottlenecks.
B. Equalize disk capacity.
C. Allocate space per disk group to recover from physical disk group member failure.
D. Build virtual disks from physical disks.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the approximate maximum virtual disk size for a disk group with 10 36GB drives and a disk
protection level of Single?
A. 134 GB
B. 202 GB
C. 270 GB
D. 338 GB
Answer: C

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NO.3 What failover mode does the EVA currently use?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Active-Passive
D. Transparent
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-B85
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Sales Fundamentals Exam )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Why does HP continue to lead the imaging and printing industry? (Select two.)
A. product reliability
B. less expensive products/services
C. marketing expertise
D. more printing formats
E. broadest product portfolio
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Which HP technology contributes to the HP value proposition of "simplicity"?
A. HP FastRes 1200
B. HP Universal Print Driver
C. HP Instant-on Fuser
D. HP Output Server
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which feature improves real-world performance on HP Color LaserJets and color MFPs?
A. intelligent color calibration
B. shorter paper path
C. flexible paper handling
D. total print management
Answer: A

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NO.4 How many customers and printers are in the HP imaging and printing worldwide installed base?
A. 30 million customers, 200 million printers
B. 100 million customers, 400 million printers
C. 400 million customers, 1 billion printers
D. 200 million customers, 600 million printers
Answer: B

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NO.5 What does an HP Color LaserJet provide that makes the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) lower than that
of competitors?
A. the cheapest base price
B. consumables' refilling capabilities
C. fewer replacement parts and long-life consumables
D. standard finishing capabilities
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the best way to do a realistic performance comparison of two competitive printers?
A. performing side-by-side comparisons of data sheets
B. warming up the printers prior to testing
C. giving each vendor the same document to print offsite
D. testing both printers in the customer's working environment
Answer: D

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NO.7 At what percentage does the use of color in printed communication increase readership?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which phrase describes real-world performance?
A. the ability of a printer to collate and staple without jamming
B. the total cost of ownership, including memory and accessories
C. the total printing process, from clicking Print, to a finished page in the output bin
D. the movement of a print job through the network
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the key driver in a transactional type of sale?
A. the customer
B. long-term planning
C. perceived customer benefits
D. the product
Answer: A

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NO.10 How do HP Edgeline technology printheads work in Edgeline MFPs?
A. They remain stationary.
B. They move with the paper.
C. They work with PhotoREt III.
D. They consume less toner.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What are the core HP value propositions for imaging and printing products?
A. affordability, reliability, quality, simplicity
B. complete product portfolio, superior output, reliability
C. affordability, quality, complete product portfolio
D. reliability, simplicity, real-world performance, superior output
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which HP technology is designed to simplify printer driver management?
A. HP Instant Support
B. HP Universal Print Driver
C. HP Easy Printer Care
D. HP Color Access Control
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are the advantages that resellers get by selling HP devices? (Select two.)
A. lowest hardware prices in the industry
B. just-in-time shipping of products
C. free toner with every sold printer
D. brand recognition that opens doors for more sales
E. access to a large installed base of existing customers
Answer: D,E

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NO.14 What is the name of the HP high quality and performance ink?
A. HP Viverata
B. HP Vivera
C. HP ImageREt
D. HP PhotoREt
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is a key reason that HP monochrome LaserJet print quality is better than that of competitive
products?
A. HP ColorSphere toner
B. higher fuser temperatures
C. smoothest gray ramp
D. HP Scalable Print technology
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-K30
Exam Name: HP (Technical Introduction to the HP Storage SMB)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is a key concept in the distinction between structured and unstructured data?
A. redundancy
B. granularity
C. accuracy
D. reliability
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the correct term for information whose component pieces can be manipulated?
A. metadata
B. hypermedia
C. structured content
D. unstructured content
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which type of disk drive provides the highest level of performance and reliability?
A. IDE
B. SCSI
C. FATA
D. SATA
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is a result of installing host bus adapters (HBAs) in an Integrity server blade.?
A. FCoE support through a LAN on Motherboard (LOM)
B. SAN-level authentication and fabric-level isolation
C. multiple operating system support
D. connectivity to the SB40c storage blade
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-N27
Exam Name: HP (Functional Testing/QTP 11 ASE Upgrade Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 37 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which integration with QuickTest Professional 11 enables you to test across GUI and non-GUI layers of
your application?
A. QuickTest Professional - Service Test Integration
B. QuickTest Professional - HP ALM Integration
C. QuickTest Professional - Load Runner Integration
D. QuickTest Professional - Performance Center Integration
Answer: A

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NO.2 In which format can you export the movies of your run session?
A. .vmv
B. rm
C. mpeg
D. fbr
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which pane in the Run Result Viewer contains the still image of the state of your application at a
particular step?
A. Result Details
B. Captured Data
C. Executive Summary
D. Screen Recorder
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which new functionality is added in the Object Spy window in QuickTest Professional 11?
A. define new test object
B. rename a test object in the repository
C. delete a test object in the repository
D. copy/paste object properties
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement is true about dragging an object from the object repository to the Keyword view?
A. The object cannot be dragged from the object repository to the Keyword view
B. The statements containing the object dragged onto the Keyword view arehighlighted
C. A step is created in the action with the default operation for the objectthat is dragged to the Keyword
view.
D. QuickTest Professional opens the Help option listing all the methods associated with that object
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-H22
Exam Name: HP (Sales Essentials of HP Digital Signage Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What is the preferred way to describe HP Digital Signage with the Scala Quick Start other than being an
ideal player (or Scala Enterprise networks) ?
A. It is an ideal solution for very large deployments.
B. It provides a full turn-key solution for small deployments and SMB.
C. The QuickStart package includes physical installation of displays
D. It enhances the color pallet displayable on the screen.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The components of a digital signage system consist of Displays, Content Management Software,
Servers, and what additional component.?
A. PC Players
B. Internet Services
C. Security Solutions
D. Accountability Solutions
Answer: A

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NO.3 What makes HP a good choice as a digital signage solution provider?
A. HP has a broad portfolio, key partnerships, and a global service organization
B. HP offers hardware and content management software.
C. HP offers content creation services.
D. HP offers PCs and Thin Clients to drive Digital Signage.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which digital signage solution approach uses a USB Thumb Drive and has no scheduling or control of
content delivery?
A. HP Software Driven Media Playing
B. Simple Content Loop
C. Premise based system
D. Software-as-a-Service based system
Answer: A

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NO.5 To which component of a digital signage network does this definition apply?
"These are generally specialized appliances, based on PC hardware, with special software."
A. content management server
B. digital signage players
C. digital signage transmitters
D. digital signage displays
Answer: A

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NO.6 Many digital signage customers are looking for a quantitative return on investment. Others seek only to
achieve a business objective. Which HP Digital Signage target customer group has "return on objective"
as their number one reason for investing in the solution?
A. In-store merchandising
B. In-store point-of-purchase advertising/promotion
C. Digital-Out-of-Home (DOOH) advertising networks
D. Information/Entertainment networks
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are two key facts you should use to overcome an objection from a customer who plans to use a
TV for their digital signage needs? (Select two.)
A. HP Digital Signage can present an image in landscape or portrait orientation.
B. HP Digital Signage displays provide a richer and truer digital image by using more liquid crystals.
C. HP Digital Signage supports IR Remote Control to help prevent accidental changes to displayed
information
D. HP Digital Signage is designed for 24/7 use.
E. The controls on an HP Digital Signage product are easily located and simplify changes that a user
wants to make.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which digital signage solution architecture uses PC based players combined with a server and will
meet the need of customers who want complete control of the infrastructure of their digital signage
network?
A. Simple Content Loop
B. Basic Single-Location Media Playing
C. Premise based system
D. Software-as-a-Service based system
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement is part of the HP Digital Signage Value Proposition?
A. HP Digital Signage products can be used as both a digital signage solution and a digital TV.
B. HP provides customers with a five year warranty and life cycle onall digital signage products. C.HP
Digital Signage products provide sweeping innovations that have made HP the market leader.
C. HP offers certified platforms and commercial grade components that meet demanding 24/7 needs.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the typical role of a VAR in the digital signage ecosystem?
A. write and publish digital signage software
B. modify internal digital signage components
C. integrate digital signage hardware and software
D. manufacture digital signage hardware
Answer: C

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Total Q&A: 185 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Your customer is currently taking approximately 20 days to deploy new applications within their
traditional IT environment. You are aware that recent industry research shows that implementing a
Converged Infrastructure could significantly reduce deployment times. If your customer used Converged
Infrastructure solutions, what could be their new deployment timeframe?
A.5 days
B.8 days
C.12 days
D.17 days
Answer: A

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NO.2 How do HP VirtualSystems increase deal size?
A.They include high value software components.
B.They move the deal to strategic virtualization solutions and services.
C.They require more processor blades than conventional systems.
D.They require larger storage systems than conventional architectures.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Why are customers struggling to manage their IT infrastructures with more than 70% of their resources
being trapped in operations, problem resolution, and maintenance activities?
A.Service and Help-Desk calls are consuming an ever-increasing amount of time to resolve by server and
storage administrators.
B.Demands from business users are on the increase, leading to a long list of projects that need to be
completed.
C.Multi-vendor solutions require increased management time, and IT resources are stretched to the limits.
D.A high degree of legacy and current applications are in rigid siloes on separate infrastructure islands.
Answer: D

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NO.4 According to IDC research, how much does the time to deploy a new service improve in moving from
Compartmentalized to Adaptive?
A.from 10 days to 2 days
B.from 20 days to 5 days
C.from 40 days to 10 days
D.from 60 days to 20days
Answer: B

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NO.5 According to the 2011 VMware channel survey, how much was spent on hardware and services for
every $1 spent on virtualization software?
A.$8
B.$10
C.$12
D.$14
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which HP storage solution is used in the HP VirtualSystem VS2?
A.HP P4800 Lefthand
B.HP P6000 EVA
C.HP P8500 XP
D.HPP10000 3PAR
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement best describes the HP VirtualSystem?
A.HP VirtualSystem enables IT departments to manage based on perceived activity, where computer
processing power is seen as a utility that users can pay for only as needed.
B.HP VirtualSystem enables several operating systems to be run in parallel on a single CPU to reduce
overhead costs.
C.HP VirtualSystem optimizes dedicated workloads such as data management, business
reporting/analytics, and collaboration.
D.HP VirtualSystem simplifies and extends converged infrastructure into optimized, turnkey solutions that
reduce costs for server and desktop virtualization.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which HP system can be upgraded to a full HP CloudSystem?
A.HP CloudSystem VS1
B.HP DL980
C.HP VirtualSystem MC1
D.HP VirtualSystem VS2
Answer: D

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NO.9 According to research by Burson-Marsteller, what is the key approach to resolving the issue that there is
a huge gap between the need for business agility and the current agility of businesses?
A.Deploy a Business Intelligence system.
B.Design and build an Enterprise Data Warehouse.
C.Initiate a technology infrastructure transformation.
D.Initiate an information lifecycle management project.
Answer: D

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NO.10 According to Gartner, what percentage of enterprises will be pursuing a private cloud strategy by 2014?
A.56%
B.66%
C.76%
D.86%
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Nortel (Comm Svr 1000 Upgrades to Rls.5.0 for Techs, Linux and Apps)
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Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 A customer is upgrading from a Communication Server 1000S to Communication Server 1000E Rls.
5.0 and requires a High Availability configuration. Which package must be in place for this to occur?
A. Package 329 for ESA
B. Package 410 for CP-PM Servers
C. Package 404 for GRPRIM for Primary System
D. Package 405 for GRSEC for Secondary System
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer is upgrading to Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0. The customer wants to take
advantage of Secure Media Exchange (SRTP) so voice conversations are secure. What needs to occur
for Media Security to be provided?
A. IP Phones Phase 1 must be using the DSPs located on the MGC and MC32S cards only.
B. IP Phones Phase 2 must be using the DSPs located on the Voice Gateway Media Cards only.
C. IP Phones Phase 0 must be using the DSPs located on the MGC and MC32S cards only.
D. IP Phones Phase 2 must be using the DSPs located on the MGC and MC32S cards only
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer has upgraded from a Communication Server (CS) 1000S to a CS 1000E Standard
Availability (SA). Due to their projected company and network growth, they are contemplating upgrading
to a CS 1000E High Availability (HA) system. Which component(s) differentiate a HA system from a SA
system?
A. a second CP-PM
B. enabling the HA software package
C. a second CP-PM and a CP-PM Call Server
D. a second CP-PM and enabling the HA software package
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has multiple Communication Server (CS) 1000Es. When calls are placed on hold, they
want to provide the same music network-wide to their calls. Which configuration is needed for this
support?
A. Network Music is provided only to those calls that are transferred to the music source using Release
Link Trunk over H.323.
B. Music Trunks are installed only on the primary node, connecting to an analog TIE trunk using
H.323/SIP virtual trunks. Only calls placed on hold at the primary node will receive this specific music
source.
C. Network Time Protocol (NTP) which is used to synchronize local clocks across the network to a single,
accurate, third party NTP server, such as a radio clock.
D. Music Trunks are installed on the remote nodes and connected back-to-back with an analog TIE trunk,
which is auto-terminated to the primary DN of a Network Music Agent. When a music trunk is seized, the
call is connected to the Audio Server through an H.323/SIP virtual trunk. A network music path is then
established.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer is upgrading a Communication Server 1000S to a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0.
Which hardware component replaces the Media Gateway 1000S controller card?
A. DSP Daughterboard
B. Media Card 32 Port Security
C. No hardware change required.
D. Media Gateway Controller card
E. Call Processor Pentium Mobile
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer is upgrading to Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.0. The customer wants to utilize
TLS for SIP traffic security in their network. What security does TLS provide?
A. TLS provides audio encryption between SIP clients only.
B. TLS provides audio encryption between Unistim clients only.
C. TLS provides signaling encryption between all SIP endpoints.
D. TLS provides signaling encryption between all system clients.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer is upgrading to Communication Server 1000E from Rls. 4.5 to Rls. 5.0 and is requesting
Survivable Media Gateways in their network. Which packages support this functionality? (Choose two.)
A. Package 409 for Global Plugins
B. Package 410 for CP PM Server High Availability
C. Package 404 for GRPRIM for the Primary System
D. Package 405 for GRSEC for the Secondary System
E. Package 499 for SSC Survivable Media Gateway
Answer: CD

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NO.8 A customer is upgrading to a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0. Which hardware components
also provide DSP services? (Choose two.)
A. 32-port DSP Daughterboard
B. 96-port DSP Daughterboard
C. 128-port DSP Daughterboard
D. Media Gateway Controller card (MC32B)
Answer: AB

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NO.9 A customer is upgrading from Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0 Standard Availability to
Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0 High Availability. In addition to a Media Gateway 1000E, what
configuration must be in place for this to occur?
A. A CP-PM and an MGC
B. A CP-PM CS, an MGC, and package 410 High Availability
C. A CP-PM CS, CP-PM SS, an MGC, and package 405 GRSEC
D. A CP-PM CS with either a CP-PM SS, ISP 1100 or COTS VxWorks SS, and an MGC, and package
410 High Availability
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer is upgrading to Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0. With this configuration, they will be
using all of the Management Features; however, they are currently at Optivity Telephony Manager (OTM)
Rls. 2.2. What is the upgrade path for the most current Telephony Manager (TM) offering, and what will
occur to the database during the upgrade?
A. Only an upgrade from OTM Rls. 2.2 to TM Rls. 3.0 is supported, and the database is automatically
migrated during the upgrade.
B. A direct upgrade from OTM Rls. 2.2 to TM Rls. 3.1 is supported, and the database is automatically
migrated during the upgrade.
C. A direct upgrade from OTM Rls. 2.2 to TM Rls. 3.1 is supported, with the database having to manually
be migrated during the upgrade.
D. Only an upgrade from TM Rls. 3.0 to TM Rls. 3.1 is supported, with the database having to be
manually migrated during the upgrade.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer is upgrading from a Meridian Option 11C to a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.0
Standard Availability. What happens to the Terminal Numbers (TNs) during the upgrade?
A. The Small System (Card-Unit) TNs are retained.
B. The TNs are automatically converted to the Large System format (Loop - Shelf - Card - Unit) for all
assigned TNs.
C. The TNs are manually changed to the Large System format (Loop - Shelf -Card - Unit) by
re-programming all devices assigned TNs.
D. The TNs for only the IP Phones are automatically converted to the Large System format (Loop - Shelf -
Card - Unit). All other devices assigned TN must be manually re-programmed.
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer is upgrading to Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0. During their database configuration,
they need to ensure that the Emergency Services for Client Mobility feature is supported, but they are
uncertain whether their upgrade supports this application. What prompt(s) should be enabled, and what
configuration is needed to ensure this support?
A. ESA must be disabled. Emergency Response Location (ERL), Emergency Caller Location (ECL) and
internal Location Information Service (Package 336) must be programmed.
B. ESA Package 329 must be enabled and programmed, allowing the Emergency Response Location
(ERL) and Emergency Caller Location (ECL) and internal Location Information Service (Package 336) to
be used.
C. New System Type 4021 must be activated before the Emergency Response Location (ERL) and
Emergency Caller Location (ECL) appear in Web Station.
D. The addition of HA Package 410 must be activated before the Emergency Response Location (ERL)
and Emergency Caller Location (ECL) appear in Web Station.
Answer: B

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NO.13 A customer has upgraded to Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0 and is using the Management Tool
NRSM on Linux. In conducting a search for Routing Entries, the engineer is looking for a specific number
range. The engineer wants to secure all entries from the entire service domain and identify specific end
points where they terminate. What is a more efficient procedure for searching for Routing Entries?
A. Enter the specific DN type + the entire scope searching.
B. Enter *56* (considered a wild card) + the entire scope searching.
C. Enter #56# (considered a wild card) + the entire scope searching.
D. Enter the specific service domain + the entire service domains to specific endpoints.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer is upgrading to Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0 and needs additional temporary IP
User Licenses for controlled load sharing between two systems. Which statement is true regarding the
licenses to be ordered and the use of additional IP User Licenses?
A. No additional licenses need to be ordered. If the customer runs out of IP User Licenses for the 1150E,
they can use the Basic IP User Licenses.
B. Basic IP User Licenses must be ordered. Regular IP Licenses will be used if the temporary license
count is exceeded.
C. Regular IP User Licenses must be ordered. Basic IP User Licenses will be used if the temporary
license count is exceeded.
D. Temporary User Licenses should be ordered. Basic IP or Regular IP User Licenses will be used if the
temporary license count is exceeded.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A customer is upgrading to a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0. To take advantage of features
supported by the Enterprise Common Manager (ECM) framework, which systems can be deployed as the
ECM? (Choose two.)
A. VxWorks Operating System and ISP 1100
B. Linux Operating System and IBM x306m
C. Linux Operating System and HP DL 320
D. VxWorks Operating System and HP DL 320
E. VxWorks Operating System and IBM x306m
Answer: BC

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